double baptisms?
While researching church records in Monmouthshire (specifically in the area between Abergavenny & Monmouth in the time frame 1825-1835), I've come across a family in which every child appears to have been baptized in both the Anglican and the Catholic churches. Has anyone else run across this? Pending further investigation I'm assuming it's due to legal requirements; does anyone know differently? Thanks so much for any guidance-Debbi
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Catholics faced persecution and discrimination until Catholic Emancipation in 1829. Even after that date, there were still some restrictions against Catholics (e.g. not being able to attend some universities). So it was certainly advantageous to be a member of the Established Church of England. Even in 2021, there are a few restrictions against Catholics remaining- there are parts of the job of Prime Minister that cannot be performed by Catholics, so the current Catholic Prime Minister has to delegate these tasks to others. And most famously, the ban on Catholics being Monarch remains.
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Hello Debbi Morgan...
It is interesting to see that your area of interest is in Monmouthshire. I have Welsh family members that came to the United States in 1861 from Monmouthshire. I have not studied the Welsh beginnings of this Williams family but just their sojourn in America. Maybe I should get to work!
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@Debbi Morgan @A van Helsdingen @ValeriePaullinYoungberg
thanks for the question and the answer which apparently have inspired Valerie to spend some time researching her ancestors in their native Wales. The Community is a great place to ask questions get answers, help us change our focus and to develop new friendships.
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There was also a ban, in one place at least, on Latterday Saints. I remember reading in an Ensign Magazine, many years ago, about a Latterday Saint family who were banned from holding services in their own home, and I'm wondering if that included blessings/baptisms as well. They walked ten miles there and back every Sunday to go to a service in another town, until the intervention of the prophet. They had written to him about the ban and he had advised that they were to be obedient to law. He then wrote to those who enforced the ban and asked if Britain did not practice freedom of religion. The ban was lifted. If I remember correctly it was because one of the congregation was the daughter of a town council member and he objected to her being a member of the church.
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That's certainly plausible especially if it was in the 19th century. It was only in the 20th century that the UK started signing international treaties that obliged it to uphold freedom of religion, and only in 1998 was a domestic law enacted guaranteeing freedom of religion.
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